Why 2nd Cor. through Phileman?

Most people that try to rightly divide and succeed on the basics realize Paul is the Gentile Apostle. But they fail to realize Israel and the Gentile church ran congruent at the same time in the books of Romans and 1st Corinthians with Israels church. Easily seen by Romans chapters written to Jews, and proselytes graffed among Israel careful not to fall like Israel had done obviously with no seal in their church. And 1st Corinthians graffed among Israel Acts 18 says with signs gifts, to show Israel God is in them too.
2nd Corinthians through Phileman completely change the tone when things Jewish come out. In Romans and 1st Corinthians it was fine but 2nd Cor.through Phileman it was negative to do anything Israel. We have in 2nd Corinthians proselytes being called out of Israel "be not yoked come out from them and I will be your God..." In Galatians we have Peter showing the difference between Jew and gentile by not eating with Gentiles when Jews show up called "dissimulation". The language changes from the books also in Romans we have remission of sins of the past still talked about. But never mentioned after Israel fully fell away, Redemption wasn't for sins of the past only but complete buy back of that person with seal. The lesson could go on and on as God set our books of the bible up in its form for a reason not chronological.
God went to the Jew 1st,then Proselyte,then Gentiles. And Israel fell or was falling when He went to gentiles or the Gentiles would have to be Jews to fellowship with the body of the Israel church.(see four forever for Israel article)